Does the method of comparing prices across countries change living standards conclusions?
Core argument: The dispute over whether Europe's living standards have fallen relative to the U.S. turns on which purchasing power parity method is preferred: constant price PPPs anchored to a base year or current price PPPs recalculated each year.
One obvious approach would be to start from a given base year and then run the data forwards and backwards using national measures of inflation. This generates “constant price purchasing power parities”. In any given year, the relative purchasing power between two societies is sensitive to the starting benchmark, but the direction of travel always looks the same. The other obvious approach would be to recalculate the price parities each year, if possible, and then use those to compare incomes each year. This creates “current price purchasing power parities.” The argument about whether Europe’s living standards have fallen relative to the U.S. is an argument about whether one method is better than the other. In theory these should produce more or less the same answers as long as inflation is measured consistently across countries and as long as the mix of items tracked does not change. Sometimes, that is exactly what happens. Both methods produce essentially the same results when comparing Japanese and U.S. incomes over time, for example.

