Corporate Tax Incidence with Excess Profits
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New evidence suggests corporate excess profit share is likely 10-20%. @JenniferGravelle, Government Accountability Office.
Ed, she cites the 20% to a CBO lit review she did (Attached, see page 27), which in turn relies on a 2015 (also by her) that finds rents are closer to 10%.
"...A widely cited study by Gentry and Hubbard estimated that 60% of corporate profits represented earnings in excess of a risk-free return.Since some (perhaps most) of the excess return is a risk premiums and is part of the opportunity cost of capital (not excess profit), the excess profit share should be lower. Some evidence suggests that it is in the neighborhood of 10% to 20%....Moreover, the burden relates only to those firms that both have some excess profits and engage in bargaining. While bargaining may be common in some European countries, in the United States, where unions would be expected to do the bargaining, less than 7% of private wage and salary workers are covered by unions..."
Jennifer Gravelle, "Corporate Tax Incidence with Excess Profits," Government Accountability Office, 2015, https://www.ntanet.org/wp-content/uploads/proceedings/2015/160-gravelle-corporate-tax-incidence-effect.pdf
"....Most analysis of corporate tax incidence assumes that incidence will fall only on all owners of capital labor in the long run. In short run, corporate shareholders will bear the burden, until forces of supply and demand push the burden to the factors of production—capital via the return to owners and labor through wages. However, the presence of excess profits—those above the normal return on investment—in the long run could result in some share falling on corporate shareholders in the long run as well.Recently the Department of the Treasury adjusted their incidence assumptions to assume that 60 percent of profits are supra normal and thus that share of the burden falls on corporate shareholders, while the remaining 40 percent is split evenly between all owners of capital and labor. They based their assumption on two sources of estimates of excess profits. This paper provides new estimates of the share of profits that may be attributed to excess profits and that would therefore fall on corporate shareholders. The methodology uses data on intangible assets to allocate profits to investment sources and isolate potential excess profits. This study finds that estimates range widely according to data and specifications, but suggests that the share of corporate profits that are supra normal is modest and likely less than 20 percent...it is more likely that the share of profits that are excess or supranormal is much less, closer to 10 percent....."
Jane Gravelle, "Corporate Tax Reform: Issues for Congress," Congressional Budget Office, September 22, 2017,



















Steve Comment: had a few questions about your “Profit Puzzle” paper. I’m sitting here looking at Figure 14 and find the results really surprising. Could the divergence btw private and public firm profits (given your using return to capital) largely be a function of the lower capital the intensity of private service firms? I’m shocked at the public firm series. I would have thought that would have had an upward slope given US firms’ international profits. Are taxes skewing this (Apple booking stuff in Ireland, etc)?
James Traina Comment: Thank you for reading! Capital intensity and tax differences are good hypotheses here. For the former, could you expand on what you have in mind? e.g. Are you thinking about physical vs financial capital differences? For the latter, we show in the “Solving the Puzzle” section that public vs aggregate tax rate differences are there, but they’re small and actually pointing the other way — they’re higher for public firms. That also relates to the rise of S-corps, which folks have attributed to tax advantages. The international dimension is much harder because we don’t have good data on it. Basically, there’s still a mismatch when we make our comparisons because “domestic” in Compustat means US incorporation, while “domestic” in the IMAs means US operation. It’s hard to say which direction this would bias our results. One thing that I find helpful to think about, but we didn’t fit into the paper: You can find the same kinds of results in *all* the standard profits / capital measures, e.g. ROA, ROIC, etc. So any explanation would have to work for all these measures jointly.
Steve Comment: Yes I have in mind firms of engineers, architects, or lawyers that have little physical or financial capital, but a lot of human capital. Could those firms be driving the high ROI of private firms relative to public? I’m genuinely curious about this, because it feels like a failure of economic efficiency to have private firms yielding so much more than public firms.
James Traina Comment: Ah yes, that’s possible! You’d need an accounting mismeasurement, though, where it doesn’t show up in labor income. You might be interested in this paper: https://bfi.uchicago.edu/insight/research-summary/the-rise-of-pass-throughs-and-the-decline-of-the-labor-share/ Public firms’ returns on the book value of assets are down ~ 50% from 1980 and private firms’ returns have doubled. @EconTraina @ASollaci @CarterDavisFin (135)