Does firms' use of data raise markups while lowering prices?
Core argument: The model implies that firms' use of data improves demand forecasting and raises markups, as data-rich firms invest more, cut marginal costs, and shift production toward high-demand, high-markup goods.
The model suggests that firms' use of data enhances their ability to forecast future demand, leading to increased markups. Data-rich firms invest more, reduce marginal costs, and shift production towards high-demand, high-markup goods. This results in a composition effect where markups rise due to the focus on high-markup products. However, data also reduces risk by making outcomes more predictable, which can lower the risk premium and markups. The interplay between risk reduction and composition effects varies across products, firms, and industries, explaining differing econometric findings on markups. Despite increased markups, data-driven efficiency lowers prices and boosts welfare, highlighting the dual role of data in amplifying market power while enhancing economic efficiency.





















Steve Comment: had a few questions about your “Profit Puzzle” paper. I’m sitting here looking at Figure 14 and find the results really surprising. Could the divergence btw private and public firm profits (given your using return to capital) largely be a function of the lower capital the intensity of private service firms? I’m shocked at the public firm series. I would have thought that would have had an upward slope given US firms’ international profits. Are taxes skewing this (Apple booking stuff in Ireland, etc)?
James Traina Comment: Thank you for reading! Capital intensity and tax differences are good hypotheses here. For the former, could you expand on what you have in mind? e.g. Are you thinking about physical vs financial capital differences? For the latter, we show in the “Solving the Puzzle” section that public vs aggregate tax rate differences are there, but they’re small and actually pointing the other way — they’re higher for public firms. That also relates to the rise of S-corps, which folks have attributed to tax advantages. The international dimension is much harder because we don’t have good data on it. Basically, there’s still a mismatch when we make our comparisons because “domestic” in Compustat means US incorporation, while “domestic” in the IMAs means US operation. It’s hard to say which direction this would bias our results. One thing that I find helpful to think about, but we didn’t fit into the paper: You can find the same kinds of results in *all* the standard profits / capital measures, e.g. ROA, ROIC, etc. So any explanation would have to work for all these measures jointly.
Steve Comment: Yes I have in mind firms of engineers, architects, or lawyers that have little physical or financial capital, but a lot of human capital. Could those firms be driving the high ROI of private firms relative to public? I’m genuinely curious about this, because it feels like a failure of economic efficiency to have private firms yielding so much more than public firms.
James Traina Comment: Ah yes, that’s possible! You’d need an accounting mismeasurement, though, where it doesn’t show up in labor income. You might be interested in this paper: https://bfi.uchicago.edu/insight/research-summary/the-rise-of-pass-throughs-and-the-decline-of-the-labor-share/ Public firms’ returns on the book value of assets are down ~ 50% from 1980 and private firms’ returns have doubled. @EconTraina @ASollaci @CarterDavisFin (135)