Is a large share of social media advertising enough to prove monopoly?
Core argument: Facebook captures 25% of total US online advertising and 60% of the social media advertising market, a position that raises questions about whether the company qualifies as a monopolist.
Facebook holds a significant position in the US advertising market, capturing 25% of the total online advertising share and a dominant 60% of the social media advertising market. This substantial market presence raises questions about its monopolistic status, especially as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) struggles to define digital markets where traditional consumer-derived sales metrics are ineffective. Despite its market power, as evidenced by its association with "The Social Network," legal challenges to Facebook's dominance have faced setbacks. A federal judge dismissed antitrust cases against Facebook, highlighting the complexity of proving monopolistic behavior in the digital realm. The FTC has been given 30 days to refine its arguments, underscoring the ongoing debate over Facebook's influence and the need for potential antitrust law reforms.





















Steve Comment: had a few questions about your “Profit Puzzle” paper. I’m sitting here looking at Figure 14 and find the results really surprising. Could the divergence btw private and public firm profits (given your using return to capital) largely be a function of the lower capital the intensity of private service firms? I’m shocked at the public firm series. I would have thought that would have had an upward slope given US firms’ international profits. Are taxes skewing this (Apple booking stuff in Ireland, etc)?
James Traina Comment: Thank you for reading! Capital intensity and tax differences are good hypotheses here. For the former, could you expand on what you have in mind? e.g. Are you thinking about physical vs financial capital differences? For the latter, we show in the “Solving the Puzzle” section that public vs aggregate tax rate differences are there, but they’re small and actually pointing the other way — they’re higher for public firms. That also relates to the rise of S-corps, which folks have attributed to tax advantages. The international dimension is much harder because we don’t have good data on it. Basically, there’s still a mismatch when we make our comparisons because “domestic” in Compustat means US incorporation, while “domestic” in the IMAs means US operation. It’s hard to say which direction this would bias our results. One thing that I find helpful to think about, but we didn’t fit into the paper: You can find the same kinds of results in *all* the standard profits / capital measures, e.g. ROA, ROIC, etc. So any explanation would have to work for all these measures jointly.
Steve Comment: Yes I have in mind firms of engineers, architects, or lawyers that have little physical or financial capital, but a lot of human capital. Could those firms be driving the high ROI of private firms relative to public? I’m genuinely curious about this, because it feels like a failure of economic efficiency to have private firms yielding so much more than public firms.
James Traina Comment: Ah yes, that’s possible! You’d need an accounting mismeasurement, though, where it doesn’t show up in labor income. You might be interested in this paper: https://bfi.uchicago.edu/insight/research-summary/the-rise-of-pass-throughs-and-the-decline-of-the-labor-share/ Public firms’ returns on the book value of assets are down ~ 50% from 1980 and private firms’ returns have doubled. @EconTraina @ASollaci @CarterDavisFin (135)