Is the trade deficit the main cause of manufacturing's decline?
Core argument: Manufacturing has fallen by 15 points of GDP while the trade balance deteriorated by only 4 points, which the author argues means the trade deficit cannot be the main explanation of deindustrialization.
Manufacturing has declined by 15 points of GDP, but the trade balance has deteriorated by only 4 points. This tells us that the trade deficit can’t be the main explanation of deindustrialization. And even 4 points is clearly an overstatement. When you spend a dollar on U.S. manufactured goods, not all the money stays in manufacturing. Some of it “leaks out” to other parts of the economy, mainly because industrial firms buy a lot of services. My read of the input-output tables (you don’t want to know) says that on average a dollar spent on U.S. manufactures translates into only 63 cents of manufacturing value added. So imagine that we could somehow eliminate our manufacturing trade deficit. Given what I’ve said, that would increase manufacturing value-added by 4*0.63 = ~2.5 points of GDP, that is, from around 10 to around 12.5 — not nothing, but a far cry from the 25 percent people remember as the good old days.



