Why do aggregate profit rates rise while market rates fall?
Core argument: Public-firm profit rates halved since 1980, matching trends in financial markets and suggesting low market power, while aggregate profit rates in the national accounts rose—a mismatch the authors attribute to measuring the return on capital for all firms versus the cost of capital for public firms only.
Why have US aggregate profit rates increased while financial market rates decreased since 1980? We propose a mismatch hypothesis: Profit rates in the national accounts track the return on capital for all firms, while financial market rates track the cost of capital for public firms only. We show public-firm profit rates halved since 1980, matching trends in financial markets and suggesting low market power. Mechanically, this residual private capital return series shows private capital returns had to have increased substantially to account for this secular break between aggregate and public firm profitability. The degree of this shift is significant: Private firms’ profit rates are on average 10% higher than public firms’ in the post-2000 period. Nonfinancial domestic private-firm profit rates doubled, suggesting high market power or risk. Size and sector differences cannot explain the divergence, though intangible-intensity might. Our results indicate substantial biases in extrapolating public-firm trends to the aggregate economy.





















Steve Comment: had a few questions about your “Profit Puzzle” paper. I’m sitting here looking at Figure 14 and find the results really surprising. Could the divergence btw private and public firm profits (given your using return to capital) largely be a function of the lower capital the intensity of private service firms? I’m shocked at the public firm series. I would have thought that would have had an upward slope given US firms’ international profits. Are taxes skewing this (Apple booking stuff in Ireland, etc)?
James Traina Comment: Thank you for reading! Capital intensity and tax differences are good hypotheses here. For the former, could you expand on what you have in mind? e.g. Are you thinking about physical vs financial capital differences? For the latter, we show in the “Solving the Puzzle” section that public vs aggregate tax rate differences are there, but they’re small and actually pointing the other way — they’re higher for public firms. That also relates to the rise of S-corps, which folks have attributed to tax advantages. The international dimension is much harder because we don’t have good data on it. Basically, there’s still a mismatch when we make our comparisons because “domestic” in Compustat means US incorporation, while “domestic” in the IMAs means US operation. It’s hard to say which direction this would bias our results. One thing that I find helpful to think about, but we didn’t fit into the paper: You can find the same kinds of results in *all* the standard profits / capital measures, e.g. ROA, ROIC, etc. So any explanation would have to work for all these measures jointly.
Steve Comment: Yes I have in mind firms of engineers, architects, or lawyers that have little physical or financial capital, but a lot of human capital. Could those firms be driving the high ROI of private firms relative to public? I’m genuinely curious about this, because it feels like a failure of economic efficiency to have private firms yielding so much more than public firms.
James Traina Comment: Ah yes, that’s possible! You’d need an accounting mismeasurement, though, where it doesn’t show up in labor income. You might be interested in this paper: https://bfi.uchicago.edu/insight/research-summary/the-rise-of-pass-throughs-and-the-decline-of-the-labor-share/ Public firms’ returns on the book value of assets are down ~ 50% from 1980 and private firms’ returns have doubled. @EconTraina @ASollaci @CarterDavisFin (135)