Do proposed explanations account for the falling labor share of income?
Core argument: Proposed mechanisms for the falling labor share collectively account for three to four times the actual decline, leaving the roughly 8 percentage point drop in the U.S. non-farm business sector since its 1950s peak inadequately explained.
Despite extensive research, the decline in labor share remains inadequately explained, with proposed mechanisms collectively accounting for 3-4 times the actual decline. The labor share in the U.S. non-farm business sector fell by about 8 percentage points since its peak in the 1950s, stabilizing recently. Various factors, such as technological advances, globalization, and increased market concentration, have been suggested as causes. However, distinguishing their individual impacts is challenging due to overlapping effects and publication bias favoring decline-predicting theories. Globally, labor shares have declined by roughly 5 percentage points since 1975, yet the exact reasons remain contentious. The complexity of these dynamics underscores the need for further investigation into stabilizing forces and the role of technological and market changes.










Ed Comment: Ben, explain why when we transition from investment in machinery that increases blue collar productivity (and eventually displaces them into jobs suffering from Baumol’s cost disease) to IT and intangibles that increase white collar productivity (by opening a window of new opportunities where the demand for brains seems to exceed the supply), that we should expect a unitary elasticity of substitution between capital and labor in an aggregate production function. As capital per worker grows, especially the intangible value of institutions, why wouldn’t we expect labors share to decline? Why wouldn’t we expect labor’s wages to decline to world wages as we open trade with the world? And even if there is unitary elasticity, why wouldn’t we have to include all our imports and exports, especially if we are importing labor-intensive products? Assuming a constant elasticity of substitution under varying conditions seems naïve.
Ben Comment: As capital per worker grows, especially the intangible value of institutions, why wouldn’t we expect labors share to decline? Why wouldn’t we expect labor’s wages to decline to world wages as we open trade with the world? And even if there is unitary elasticity, why wouldn’t we have to include all our imports and exports, especially if we are importing labor-intensive products? Assuming a constant elasticity of substitution under varying conditions seems naïve. The basic assumption is that people are paid their marginal product of labor. More capital will make them more productive and drive up their marginal product of labor, and (theoretically) their wages. Maybe people aren't paid their marginal product of labor, but most of the phenomena pushing people’s wages below MPL would fall within the definitions of monopsony. I’m just not sure how you think wages are set in this context. What you call naive is basically standard theory. If wages are set differently than MPL, I’d like to understand better what you think changes those wages? Also, the sentence you’ve italicized specifically refers to an aggregate production function. Aggregate production functions are intentionally simplified away from a lot of the distinctions you’re making. Unitary elasticity of substitutions mean that a 1% change in capital could be offset by a 1% change in labor and production would still cost the same - and is indicative of Cobb-douglas production functions in aggregate. I’m not sure why this seems like such a bad approximation. It’s generally used in aggregate because labor share and capital share were basically constant from 1947-1980. Maybe it’s different now, but there is some aggregate elasticity of substitution and economist try to measure it. Most estimates are relatively close to 1. I don’t really understand your import/export question since net exports are included in GDP calculations. Labor intensive products means they’re using relatively less capital - so the labor is relatively less productive, and would be paid relatively less. Capital intensive production would imply the labor is very productive and would be paid relatively more. I don’t think I understand what the question is.
Ed Comment: I don’t think 1 is unreasonable. And I know it’s standard. I’m questioning why it couldn’t vary under varying circumstance. You are quick to dismiss my question. The purpose of thinking is not to stop thinking. Imagine a 2-sector economy, a highly productive capital-intensive sector without employees that earns the cost of capital (let's call it manufacturing) and an unproductive labor-intensive sector without capital that employs the marginal employee at their marginal product of labor (let's call it services). As the capital intensive sector grows relatively larger, why wouldn't labor's share of GDP decline? Now imagine the first sector with employees whose wages are set by the marginal product of labor of the second sector that expands to hires the marginal worker whose productivity is low without capital. Again, why wouldn't labor's share decline as the first sector grows relatively? Imagine the case where the first sector is shedding workers as it grows. Again, why wouldn't labor's share decline as the first sector grows relatively? Before you dismiss my question by saying manufacturing isn't growing relatively, first respond to the theoretical scenarios and questions as asked. My question is really about whether segmentation vs aggregation can change the answer. If it can, then I can show other segments that might also change the answer.
Ben Comment: I think I understand what you’re saying so here it goes: ED: PS Imagine a 2-sector economy, a highly productive capital-intensive sector without employees that earns the cost of capital (let's call it manufacturing) and an unproductive labor-intensive sector without capital that employs the marginal employee at their marginal product of labor (let's call it services). As the capital intensive sector grows relatively larger, why wouldn't labor's share of GDP decline? BEN: In partial equilibrium, labor share would decline. In general equilibrium (i.e. macro economics), you have not outlined a fully specified model. To do so, you would need to say something about consumer preferences for one type of good vs another (demand functions) and you would need to say something about labor supply functions. I can write down an aggregate production function that looks like the economy you’ve described, but the relative sizes of the two sectors would depend on who is buying what in what proportions and the elasticity of substitution between the two goods, which in turn depends on the wages the laborers are receiving in the “unproductive” sector and how high/low those wages are relative to the cost of capital. Again, in partial equilibrium analysis, the labor share would go down in the scenario you’ve outlined but general equilibrium creates lots of unknowns. All of this before we even touch autarky vs open economy macro and which prices are set on the world market. ED: Now imagine the first sector with employees whose wages are set by the marginal product of labor of the second sector that expands to hires the marginal worker whose productivity is low without capital. Again, why wouldn't labor's share decline as the first sector grows relatively? BEN: Again, in partial equilibrium, you are right. In general equilibrium (or, this time, even in a game theory sense), you would need to explain *why* the wages in sector 2 pin down the wages in sector 1. To make this kind of argument, you would either need a lot of corporate market power in labor markets (monopsony) or completely elastic labor supply functions. Without assuming this market power, companies in sector 1 bid up wages to hire more people because if they cannot find the labor they need, they’re leaving profits on the table. And how far do they bid up wages? Up to the marginal product of labor (the profit maximizing point). Without firm market power in labor markets (monopsony) this argument fails. On the other hand, if labor supply is completely elastic (the quantity doesn’t change with price), then people don’t respond to incentives. Neither of those is particularly compelling, huh? ED: Imagine the case where the first sector is shedding workers as it grows. Again, why wouldn't labor's share decline as the first sector grows relatively? BEN: Again, we need more structure to actually analyze this sort of scenario. Of course the way you’ve set up the analysis would have the impact you’re suggesting in partial equilibrium but in general equilibrium, prices, wages, and employment would shift among the sectors could ( and do in macro models!) rebalance to make the labor share constant. To build the model you’ve described, there need to be frictions in the various markets that prevent the prices (including wages) from readjusting to balance. Without those frictions, the labor share would be constant.