How have the world's largest firms grown more dominant, tech-driven, and Chinese?
Core argument: The top 50 firms by market capitalization accounted for 28% of global GDP in 2020, up from less than 5% in 1990, with tech companies such as Apple displacing traditional giants like IBM.
In 2020, the top 50 firms by market cap accounted for 28% of global GDP, a significant increase from less than 5% in 1990. This growth reflects the increasing dominance of tech companies, with firms like Apple replacing traditional giants such as IBM. These companies have seen their profit margins rise from 7% to 18% over three decades while their median effective tax rate fell from 35% to 17%. Despite sitting on a cash pile of $1.8 tn in 2020, they allocate a smaller portion of earnings to capital expenditures, with Apple spending just 3% compared to IBM's 9% in 1990. The rise of Chinese firms is notable, with 8 now among the top 50, up from none in 1990, highlighting a shift in global economic power. This concentration of wealth and power poses challenges for policymakers aiming to address inequality and regulate these megafirms effectively.












Ed Comment:This seems consistent with my disagreement with Mian and Sufie who claimed the gov should prop up subprime consumption in the aftermath of financial crisis whereas I argued that subprime consumption was artificially propped up prior to financial crisis from a one-time expansion of subprime lending and needed to return to its long run equilibrium.
Using data from the UK Svensson finds that changes in household debt have a greater impact on consumption than the level of household debt. Using microdata Svensson finds, "...it was not high household indebtedness in itself that caused the fall in spending during the crisis in Denmark, Australia, and the UK.19There were some highly indebted households that cut down their spending more than others did, but this is better explained by these households having before the crisis engaged in a mortgage-financed over spending relative to income.This overspending could not continue during the crisis, and spending fell...."
It follows, "...At the same time, increased mortgage loans for consumption purposes contributed to many households being highly indebted. Mortgage financing of overspending thus caused both the fall in spending and to a certain extent the high indebtedness. This created a correlation between high indebtedness and subsequent consumption declines—but not a causal relationship between them.It follows that high household debt-to-income ratios in themselves contain little or no information about risks of a spending fall associated with household indebtedness...."
He suggests the story is one of means reversion, “…The results instead provide some support for the “spending-normalization hypothesis”....what can also be called the “debt-financed overspending” hypothesis—that the correlation between high pre-crisis household indebtedness and subsequent spending falls during the crisis reflected high debt-financed spending pre-crisis and a return to normal spending during the crisis….”
Note he also has a companion paper showing the results also hold for Australia.
Ben noted that the big takeaway is Svensson’s rejection of the debt-overhang hypothesis, good line to that affect, “…In particular, the debt-overhang hypothesis is rejected, and the regression on only the DTI ratio is subject to omitted-variable bias….”
His takeaway, “…The “debt-overhang hypothesis”—that households cut back more on their spending in a crisis when they have higher levels of outstanding mortgage debt....seems to be taken for granted by macroprudential authorities in several countries in their policy decisions, as well as by the international organizations that evaluate and comment on countries’ macroprudential policy. Results are presented for UK microdata that reject the debt-overhang hypothesis. The results instead support the “spending-normalization hypothesis” of Andersen, Duus, and Jensen (2016a), what can also be called the “debt-financed overspending” hypothesis—that the correlation between high pre-crisis household indebtedness and subsequent spending cuts during the crisis reflects high debt-financed spending pre-crisis and a return to normal spending during the crisis.As discussed in Svensson.... this is consistent with the correlation reflecting debt-financed overspending through what Muellbauer.... calls the “housing-collateral household-demand” and Mian and Sufi....the “debt driven household demand” channel. The correlation is thus spurious and an example of omitted-variable bias. A simple model shows that consumption and debt changes are directly and strongly positively correlated, whereas consumption and debt levels are quite weakly negatively correlated. Importantly, and in contrast, examples show that there is no systematic relation between consumption cuts and levels of or changes in LTV ratios. The lack of a robust relation between consumption cuts and levels of or changes in LTV ratios implies that tests of these hypotheses should generally not be done by regressions of consumption cuts on levels of or changes in LTV ratios..."