Does rising industry concentration raise productivity and output without raising prices?
Core argument: Across U.S. industries from 1972 to 2012, rising industry concentration correlates positively with productivity and real output growth, while showing no correlation with price changes or overall payroll.
Over the past four decades, American industries have become more concentrated, leading to significant economic shifts. Data from 1972-2012 reveals that increased industry concentration correlates positively with productivity and real output growth, while remaining uncorrelated with price changes and overall payroll. This suggests that productive industries with growing oligopolists can expand real output and maintain or reduce prices, thereby enhancing consumer welfare. However, this expansion often occurs with stable or reduced workforces, resulting in a decreased labor revenue share. These trends highlight the complex dynamics between industry concentration and economic performance, underscoring the need for nuanced policy responses to balance productivity gains with equitable labor outcomes.









Ed Comment:I view these nonpecuniary measures as highly subjective opinions to justify the failure of Europe.I'm looking for measures about how much we spend helping the poor vs France and Germany. The peterson Institute has a good study that accounts for taxes and tax breaks. It also adds public and private spending. it show we spend 28% of GDP second only to France at 31%. But given our economy is 2/3s larger per capita, we spend significant more dollars-wise per recipient. We have more poor relatively, but if you mean Europe by us standards, Germany and France have the same share of less than middle-class families. They just don't view them as poor. The study however doesn't separate pensions, poverty spending, and care for everyone else. I want to compare our poor to theirs. I'm confident ours are richer albeit dumber, so they do dumb stuff, like get addicted to opioids and get fat/type 2 diabetes. Perhaps the guy has expanded his analysis over time although I'm doubtful. My impression from what I've seen is Germany and france give the poor and pensioners, the same or less than we do dollars-wise per recipient. They are poorer than us so they can't afford to give them more. I also want to find the (unadjusted) black/minoity/immigrant vs white pay gap in Europe vs the US. My impression is it's the same--about 20 to 25%. In America, black files earn less but they also work less. The same is true in Europe where the unemployment is higher (I'd like to see that too).